In IMPA, which statement best describes primary IMPA?

In IMPA, which statement best describes primary IMPA?

• A. A definite bacterial infection
• B. A known autoimmune trigger
• C. Not identified as inciting cause
• D. A recent trauma

Answer: (C)

Primary IMPA refers to an immune-mediated arthritis where no inciting trigger is found after a thorough evaluation. In this situation, the inflammation is driven by the immune system, but there isn’t a definite cause such as a bacterial infection, an autoimmune trigger, or recent trauma identified. Clinically you’d often find neutrophilic synovial fluid, and septic arthritis would be ruled out with negative cultures. If no infection, no systemic disease, and no other trigger are detected, it’s classified as primary IMPA.

Primary IMPA refers to an immune-mediated arthritis where no inciting trigger is found after a thorough evaluation. In this situation, the inflammation is driven by the immune system, but there isn’t a definite cause such as a bacterial infection, an autoimmune trigger, or recent trauma identified. Clinically you’d often find neutrophilic synovial fluid, and septic arthritis would be ruled out with negative cultures. If no infection, no systemic disease, and no other trigger are detected, it’s classified as primary IMPA.